The topic came up regarding that I have almost no obstructive SA events; they are now almost 100% central.
I am not sure if he understands Sleep Apnea terminology ......
Good thing is that he will correspond via e-mail........ and I do not want to alienate him.
In response to your original email:
"It’s fairly unusual to have both obstructive and central apneas. One common reason to have central apneas is too high pressure settings on your CPAP. I would discuss these with your Sleep Doc since it may mean you need a BiPAP instead of AutoPAP"
I beleive he should have said "adaptive-servo ventilation" in place of BiPAP.
Do I correct him? or Should I just forget what would apear to be an error ?
And is his statment regarding "both obstructive and central" being unusal correct?
Not sure how to respond/correct him ......... if at all ..........
So what would you do?